Question 1 of 10CLINICAL EVALUATION OF THE SMALL JOINTS OF THE HAND
When assessing the small joints of the hand for evidence of a ligamentous injury, which one of the following is correct?
A
A grade I collateral ligament tear will be grossly unstable during lateral stress testing.
B
Lateral stability in extension does not exclude the presence of a collateral ligament tear.
C
Stener lesions are nonspecific to a particular small joint and can occur with all injury grades I through III.
D
Dislocations are described according to the position of the proximal bone to normal joint alignment.
E
Two radiographic views are required involving joints proximal and distal to the injury.
✓ Correct Answer: B. Lateral stability in extension does not exclude the presence of a collateral ligament tear.
Clinical Explanation
When assessing the stability of the small joints of the hand, stress testing should be performed in both flexion and extension to ensure that the collateral ligaments and volar plate are independently and accurately tested. For example, the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint can remain stable in extension despite a collateral ligament tear because of volar plate stability. Flexion of the joint relaxes the volar plate and facilitates assessment of the collateral ligaments. Local anesthetic blocks are often required to perform this assessment. Collateral ligament injuries are graded I through III, according to increasing instability. A grade I injury is grossly stable with only a microscopic tear. A grade II injury results in relative instability in lateral stress testing (around 20 degrees), but with a definite endpoint. A grade III injury results in gross instability with no firm endpoint. Only grade III injuries (complete) lead to a Stener lesion which is specific to the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.1,2 Dislocations are described according to the position of the distal bone (not proximal) relative to normal joint alignment. While the joints proximal and distal to the injury must be imaged, this must be in three (not two) views.
References:
1. Glickel SZ, Barron OA, Catalano LW. Dislocations and ligament injuries in the digits. In: Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson
WC, et al, eds. Green’s Operative Hand Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia: Churchill Livingstone; 2005
Question 2 of 10FINGER MCP JOINT ANATOMY
Which one of the following is responsible for the cam effect in metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexion?
A
Volar plate
B
Flexor tendons
C
Collateral ligaments
D
Joint contour
E
Deep transverse metacarpal ligament
✓ Correct Answer: D. Joint contour
Clinical Explanation
2. Stener B. Skeletal injuries associated with rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb. A clinical and anatomical study. Acta Chir Scand 1963;125:583–586 All of the listed options contribute to the stability of the MCP joint, but during flexion it is particularly stable from the cam effect of the joint. A cam effect converts a rotational motion into a linear one (Fig. 77.1). The metacarpal head is nonspherical, and when flexion occurs the collateral ligaments are placed on stretch. This explains why splints are designed to maintain the joint in flexion, and why Dupuytren’s contractures can be left longer before treatment when involving this joint. There is also more stable bony contact when the MCP joint is placed in 70 degrees or more of flexion, which also contributes to overall stability.1–3
References:
1. Minami A, An KN, Cooney WP III, Linscheid RL, Chao EY. Ligamentous structures of the metacarpophalangeal joint: a
quantitative anatomic study. J Orthop Res 1984;1(4): 361–368
2. Eaton RG, Littler JW. Joint injuries and their sequelae. Clin Plast Surg 1976;3(1):85–98
3. Minami A, An KN, Cooney WP III, Linscheid RL, Chao EY. Ligament stability of the metacarpophalangeal joint: a biome-
chanical study. J Hand Surg Am 1985;10(2):255–260
Question 3 of 10DORSAL DISLOCATION OF THE FINGER MCP JOINT
You assess a young man with a dorsal index finger MCP joint dislocation after a fall. The MCP joint is in 70 degrees of extension and the interphalangeal (IP) joint is flexed. There are no fractures seen on three plain radiograph views. Which one of the following is correct?
A
Wrist and MCP joint extension will aid closed reduction.
B
The metacarpal head may be trapped between the long flexor tendons and the lumbrical.
C
It can be reliably assumed that the collateral ligaments are intact.
D
If an open reduction is required, a dorsal approach is best.
E
If an open reduction is required, the A1 pulley must be preserved.
✓ Correct Answer: B. The metacarpal head may be trapped between the long flexor tendons and the lumbrical.
Clinical Explanation
Fig. 77.1 The cam effect is created by eccentric movement of the proximal phalanx on the metacarpal head, causing a dynamic change in collateral ligament length. The head of the metacarpal is commonly found to be trapped between the lumbrical radially and the flexor tendons ulnarly and this is often a reason why reduction is challenging. Closed reduction is most likely to be successful if the wrist is flexed, because this will slacken off the long flexors. This is a fairly high-energy injury and the radial collateral ligament may have been avulsed. A volar approach provides the best access to the key structures during open reduction. Either the radial digital nerve to the index finger or the lumbrical may lie very superficially over the metacarpal head; so, care must be taken when elevating the skin flaps and exploring the joint to avoid damage. Dividing the A1 pulley is sometimes used to slacken off the flexor pull and give more flexibility to the volar joint structures during reduction. Loss of this pulley would not have any negative functional consequences. Dorsal subluxations may also be complicated by the volar plate becoming trapped within the joint. In these circumstances, this must be removed from the joint intraoperatively and followed up with joint immobilization in flexion for the first few weeks.1
References:
1. Dinh P, Franklin A, Hutchinson B, Schnall SB, Fassola I. Metacarpophalangeal joint dislocation. J Am Acad Orthop Surg
2009;17(5):318–324
Question 4 of 10THUMB MCP JOINT INJURY
A patient has sustained a closed injury to the thumb during a fall onto an outstretched hand. Ligamentous damage is suspected. Which one of the following is correct regarding thumb MCP joint collateral ligament injuries?
A
Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injuries are twice as common as radial collateral ligament (RCL) or volar plate injuries.
B
UCL tears are most likely to occur at the proximal origin from the metacarpal.
C
Complete RCL and UCL injuries need operative intervention because of the risk of a Stener lesion.
D
Grade II UCL and RCL injuries are treated similarly, with 4 weeks of immobilization in a cast.
E
UCL injuries involving avulsion fractures are most commonly intra-articular and require surgical intervention.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Grade II UCL and RCL injuries are treated similarly, with 4 weeks of immobilization in a cast.
Clinical Explanation
injuries? Grade II RCL/UCL injuries of the thumb are treated similarly, with cast immobilization for 4 weeks then protected mobilization for a further 2 weeks. This is because there remains some continuity of the ligaments and in each scenario there will be the potential for adequate healing. In contrast, grade III injuries are treated differently due the risk of a Stener lesion. A Stener lesion is where the adductor aponeurosis becomes interposed between the distal UCL and base of the proximal phalanx. In this situation, primary repair of the ligament cannot occur. Stener lesions occur only at the UCL, since on the radial side the abductor insertion is too wide to become interposed between the RCL fragments. Failure to recognize and treat a Stener lesion of the UCL may result in chronic instability and degenerative changes at the MCP joint. Surgical repair of RCL injures will need repair only if there is volar subluxation.1 UCL injuries of the thumb are 10 times more common than RCL injuries. UCL tears are five times more likely to occur distally at the insertion into the proximal phalanx than at the proximal site. Avulsion fractures of the proximal phalanx can occur with UCL tears. Typically, they are small fracture fragments that do not involve the articular surface and are managed with cast immobilization. Large fracture fragments with more than 2 mm of displacement require intervention.
References:
1. Stener B. Skeletal injuries associated with rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the metacarpophalangeal joint of
the thumb. A clinical and anatomical study. Acta Chir Scand 1963;125:583–586
Question 5 of 10CHRONIC MCP JOINT INJURY OF THE THUMB
A 59-year-old man complains of pain and weakness affecting his dominant thumb, which has been getting worse over 5 years. On examination, the interphalangeal (IP) joint and carpometacarpal (CMC) joint are unremarkable. The MCP joint sits in radial deviation, but there is an endpoint on radial stressing at 45 degrees. The radial collateral ligament (RCL) is intact. There is sclerosis and a small radial osteophyte on radiographs. Which one of the following is correct?
A
Fusion of the MCP joint may be the most appropriate long-term solution.
B
Repeated steroid injections may be all that is required for symptomatic management.
C
A palmaris longus tendon graft should be used to reconstruct the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL).
D
If the patient cannot recall a specific injury, it is unlikely that the UCL is the problem.
E
A period of 8 to 12 weeks in a thumb spica cast should allow this injury to stabilize.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Fusion of the MCP joint may be the most appropriate long-term solution.
Clinical Explanation
The MCP joint sits in radial deviation, but there is an endpoint on radial stressing at 45 degrees. The radial Gamekeeper’s thumb is a term used for chronic thumb MCP joint UCL injuries. It may be the result of a missed grade III UCL rupture with a Stener lesion, or it may be caused by repeated minor injuries that culminate in gradual attrition of the ligament. Either way, direct delayed repair of the UCL is not usually possible. The joint should always be assessed for signs of osteoarthritis before considering UCL reconstruction. If arthritis is present, it is usually more appropriate to fuse the MCP joint instead of reconstructing the UCL. Fusion of this joint is well tolerated if there is good IP joint and carpometacarpal (CMC) joint function.1
Which one of the following is correct regarding proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint?
A
The ligament box complex comprises two key elements; the volar plate and true collateral ligaments.
B
The PIP joint is less commonly dislocated than the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.
C
A normal PIP joint range of motion involves a 70-degree arc of rotation.
D
Dorsal dislocation of the PIP joint is most common, given the joint anatomy.
E
Volar plate avulsion usually occurs at the proximal phalanx.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Dorsal dislocation of the PIP joint is most common, given the joint anatomy.
Clinical Explanation
The PIP joint is the most commonly dislocated small joint in the hand, and dorsal dislocation, because of hyperextension, is the most common mechanism. The joint is normally very stable because of the anatomy of the ligament box complex which comprises the volar plate as well as the proper and accessory collateral ligaments (Fig. 77.2). This ligament complex must be disrupted in at least two planes for dislocation to occur. The volar plate most commonly (80%) avulses distally from the middle phalanx, and when it avulses proximally it can become trapped within the joint necessitating open reduction. The collateral ligaments usually avulse proximally (85%). The normal range of PIP joint motion varies between digits, but is typically more than 100 degrees. The arc of rotation of the DIP joint is usually 90 degrees.1–3 Accessory collateral ligament Proper collateral ligament Volar plate Fig. 77.2 The ligament box complex provides joint stability to the proximal interphalangeal joint.
References:
1. Freiberg A. Management of proximal interphalangeal joint injuries. Can J Plast Surg 2007;15(4):199–203
2. McElfresh EC, Dobyns JH, O’Brien ET. Management of fracture-dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joints by
extension-block splinting. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1972;54(8):1705–1711
3. Aladin A, Davis TRC. Dorsal fracture-dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint: a comparative study of percuta-
neous Kirschner wire fixation versus open reduction and internal fixation. J Hand Surg [Br] 2005;30(2):120–128
Question 7 of 10CLASSIFICATION OF DORSAL PIP JOINT DISLOCATIONS
A patient presents with a type II dorsal dislocation of the PIP joint. What does this description suggest?
A
That there is an associated bony injury.
B
That some joint congruity is maintained.
C
That the volar plate is still intact.
D
That the collateral ligaments are still intact.
E
That both volar plate and collateral ligaments are injured.
✓ Correct Answer: E. That both volar plate and collateral ligaments are injured.
Clinical Explanation
The classification system for dorsal dislocations of the PIP joint has three categories. The system is useful as it guides treatment. Injury types I and II are soft-tissue injuries only. Type III injuries have associated fractures. Types I and II differ in the degree of soft-tissue damage and joint congruity. Type I is a hyperextension injury with either partial or complete volar plate avulsion and partial articulation of the joint remains intact. Type II is also a hyperextension injury but results in complete dorsal dislocation of the middle phalanx. The volar plate must be completely divided for this to occur and the collateral ligaments must also be damaged.1–3
References:
1. Freiberg A. Management of proximal interphalangeal joint injuries. Can J Plast Surg 2007;15(4):199–203
2. Joyce KM, Joyce CW, Conroy F, Chan J, Buckley E, Carroll SM. Proximal interphalangeal joint dislocations and treatment:
an evolutionary process. Arch Plast Surg 2014;41(4):394–397
3. McElfresh EC, Dobyns JH, O’Brien ET. Management of fracture-dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joints by
extension-block splinting. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1972;54(8):1705–1711
Question 8 of 10TREATMENT OF ACUTE PIP JOINT DISLOCATIONS
You see a patient in the hand trauma clinic following reduction of a dorsal dislocation of the ring finger PIP joint. Post reduction radiographs reveal a 30% volar articular fragment at the base of the middle phalanx that is well aligned. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
A
Mobilize with buddy strapping to the middle finger and see again in 2 to 3 weeks.
B
Immobilize for 2 to 3 weeks in extension to prevent joint contracture, then progressively mobilize with buddy strapping.
C
Protect and mobilize within a dorsal blocking splint at 20 to 30 degrees for 3 weeks, reducing the splint angle weekly.
D
Perform open reduction and mini-lag screw fixation of the bony fragment and begin early mobilization.
E
Apply a dynamic skeletal traction frame across the PIP joint and begin early mobilization.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Protect and mobilize within a dorsal blocking splint at 20 to 30 degrees for 3 weeks, reducing the splint angle weekly.
Clinical Explanation
angle weekly. Following adequate reduction of a dorsal PIP joint dislocation, the size of any volar fragment at the middle phalanx base tends to indicate the degree of stability and subsequent treatment. Fragments less than 40% of the articular surface, as in this case, are often stable. This is because a portion of the true collateral ligament insertion to the base of the middle phalanx is preserved on each side. If the injury is stable with good alignment of the fragment, operative intervention is not required. A splint regimen should protect against recurrent dorsal dislocation, while mobilizing the joint early to reduce subsequent fibrosis and stiffness.1–3
References:
1. Deitch MA, Kiefhaber TR, Comisar BR, Stern PJ. Dorsal fracture dislocations of the proximal interphalangeal joint: surgical
complications and long-term results. J Hand Surg Am 1999;24(5):914–923
2. Freiberg A. Management of proximal interphalangeal joint injuries. Can J Plast Surg 2007;15(4):199–203
3. Eaton RG, Malerich MM. Volar plate arthroplasty of the proximal interphalangeal joint: a review of ten years’ experience.
J Hand Surg Am 1980;5(3):260–268
Question 9 of 10TREATMENT OF ACUTE PIP JOINT DISLOCATIONS
A patient presents after a fall during which he injured his little finger PIP joint. He states that immediately after the fall his finger was pointing away from the ring finger at about 60 degrees, but he was able to manipulate the finger back into place. Examination shows a residual 30 degrees of lateral instability on stress testing. Radiographs are all normal. Which one of the following is correct?
A
Although the RCL will have been injured, the volar plate will be spared.
B
This injury will require surgical intervention with a bone anchor device.
C
Buddy taping to the ring finger and mobilization may be all that is required.
D
The outcome following this injury is likely to be excellent with normal function by 6 weeks.
E
This mechanism of injury is less common than a volar dislocation of the PIP joint.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Buddy taping to the ring finger and mobilization may be all that is required.
Clinical Explanation
Lateral dislocations of the PIP joint are relatively common and can usually be treated nonoperatively with buddy taping to the adjacent finger and early mobilization. Surgical intervention is not usually required. The main injury involves the RCL, but there will also be a degree of damage to the volar plate. Outcomes following PIP joint dislocation are generally poor, even with good compliance and physiotherapy. The range of movement may take several months to recover and may not return to normal. There is often some long-term residual thickening around the PIP joint because of fibrosis after an injury, which some patients find distressing. Lateral dislocations of the little finger PIP joint are more common than volar dislocations, which are rare.1
References:
1. Joyce KM, Joyce CW, Conroy F, Chan J, Buckley E, Carroll SM. Proximal interphalangeal joint dislocations and treatment:
an evolutionary process. Arch Plast Surg 2014;41(4):394–397
Question 10 of 10DIP JOINT DISLOCATIONS
Which one of the following is true with regard to DIP joint injuries?
A
They represent the most commonly dislocated small joint of the hand.
B
They are most commonly closed injuries when they do occur.
C
They can often be associated with tendon insertion injuries.
D
When surgery is required this is best undertaken under general anesthesia.
E
Early mobilization following reduction is generally advised.
✓ Correct Answer: C. They can often be associated with tendon insertion injuries.
Clinical Explanation
Trauma to the DIP joint can result in fractures, dislocations, and associated tendon injuries. For example, the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) or flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendons can be avulsed from the bone during dislocation or fractures of the distal phalanx and DIP joint. If these do become detached, then they must be reattached surgically with either a bone anchor or bone tunnel and a pull-out suture. Although the anatomy of the DIP joint shares characteristics with the PIP joint, and the fingertip is very commonly injured, the DIP joint is still less commonly injured than the PIP, especially with regard to dislocations. When DIP joint injuries do occur, they are frequently open injuries and when surgery is required, they usually are undertaken under local anesthetic rather than general anesthetic or regional block. After reduction, it is usual practice to immobilize the DIP joint in slight flexion for a number of weeks. It generally tolerates immobilization well.1
References:
1. Chung S, Sood A, Lee E. Principles of management in isolated dorsal distal interphalangeal joint dislocations. Eplasty