Part VI • Hand, Wrist, And Upper Extremity

Chapter 95: Hand Infections

Questions: 14
Answered: 0/14
Score: 0%
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Question 1 of 14 SURGICAL PRINCIPLES IN HAND INFECTIONS
When draining a severe flexor sheath infection with an associated palmar abscess, which one of the following is true?
A
An Esmarch bandage is recommended to fully exsanguinate the limb.
B
Minimal access incisions are required in order to leave wounds open.
C
An arm tourniquet should be avoided, as bacteremia occurs following release.
D
Primary amputation should be considered in a diabetic with renal problems.
E
Bruner incisions are the preferred method of opening up the finger.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Primary amputation should be considered in a diabetic with renal problems.
Clinical Explanation

Some key principles are relevant when surgically managing infections of the upper limb. The context of the patient’s general health status is always important and a diabetic with renal problems is at high risk of systemic complications from a severe hand infection. There is a high likelihood of ending up with amputation of the affected digit anyway with this severe an infection in this patient group1; therefore, the option of primary amputation should be considered to reduce overall risk to the patient and to reduce the number of procedures required. Even if a primary amputation is completed, the wounds will still need to be left at least partially open to drain and at least one further procedure is likely to be required to check that there is no progression of tissue changes requiring further debridement and to close wounds where appropriate. It is standard practice to use a tourniquet for incision and drainage of an infected upper limb, as this facilitates a clear, blood-free view of structures during debridement. The Esmarch bandage is a rubber band that is used to wrap the hand and forearm for exsanguination before inflation of a tourniquet. Gentle gravity exsanguination is preferred in infected cases to reduce the risk of causing bacteremia. Incisions should be designed to allow adequate access while minimize subsequent wound healing and scar complications. In particular, longitudinal incisions across flexion creases should be avoided, as they are likely to lead to scar contractures. As with all hand surgery explorations, incisions should be designed to place scars within skin creases where possible and facilitate good access. Using larger access incisions is generally recommended in severe soft-tissue infections to facilitate accurate debridement and drainage. Some exceptions include mild flexor sheath infections, which can be irrigated with minimal access incisions if not responding to nonoperative management. One proximal incision in the distal palm, and one distally at the level of the DIP joint can be adequate for irrigation if pus is thin. Bruner’s incisions are commonly used in hand surgery, but in the scenario of a severe hand infection, there is a risk of skin flap necrosis leading to exposure of critical structures and wound healing problems.2 Therefore, a midlateral approach is preferable if the whole finger needs to be opened. This also has the advantage of less pain and swelling during the early healing period which in turn facilitates more effective early mobilization and reduced stiffness. Popular access incisions for draining hand infections are illustrated in Fig. 95.1. Copious Fig. 95.1 Incision placement for access in the hand. irrigation of infected wounds is required, and this is often best done with a large saline bag and an intravenous administration set. Following surgery, early active mobilization is optimal to reduce postoperative edema, stiffness, and loss of joint motion.

References:
  • 1. Francel TJ, Marshall KA, Savage RC. Hand infections in the diabetic and the diabetic renal transplant recipient. Ann Plast
  • Surg 1990;24(4):304–309
Question 2 of 14 PARONYCHIA
A patient with a painful swollen fingertip is diagnosed with acute paronychia. Which one of the following is true?
A
This is a common infection originating in the pulp space.
B
Incision and drainage is the first-line treatment.
C
Management always requires removal of the nail plate.
D
Eponychial marsupialization is often required.
E
Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely pathogen.
✓ Correct Answer: E. Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely pathogen.
Clinical Explanation

2. Osterman M, Draeger R, Stern P. Acute hand infections. J Hand Surg Am 2014;39(8): 1628–1635, quiz 1635 is generally caused by a bacterial infection with Staphylococcus aureus and is associated with nail biting and minor trauma. First-line treatment is oral antibiotics, hand baths, and rest/elevation of the affected digit. In cases unresponsive to conservative management, it is necessary to drain the abscess and/or remove the nail plate. Chronic infections are more likely to be fungal and may require marsupialization or nail ablation in cases resistant to medical management. Pulp space infections are called felons. They can coexist with paronychia but are different entities. They are treated with incision and drainage plus antibiotics.1

References:
  • 1. Franko OI, Abrams RA. Hand infections. Orthop Clin North Am 2013;44(4):625–634
Question 3 of 14 CLINICAL MANAGEMENT OF A PAINFUL, SWOLLEN FINGER
A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with a swollen, red, painful index pulp and nail fold. It began spontaneously 3 days ago as a burning sensation. Clear fluid is evident under some small superficial blisters that appeared only this morning. He is otherwise healthy, takes no regular medication, and is not a nail biter. Which one of the following is the best course of action in this case?
A
Admit for 24 to 48 hours of intravenous antibiotic therapy with elevation of the hand.
B
Admit for surgical incision and drainage under local anesthetic.
C
Debride the finger in clinic and prescribe broad-spectrum oral antibiotics.
D
Apply a simple dry dressing and follow up in 24 to 48 hours.
E
Scrape the wound for urgent microbiologic analysis and prescribe acyclovir.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Apply a simple dry dressing and follow up in 24 to 48 hours.
Clinical Explanation

The differential diagnosis in this patient is herpetic whitlow or a felon/paronychia. Given the appearance of vesicles, the mild swelling, and the history of prodromal burning provided, herpetic whitlow is the most likely diagnosis. This condition is generally self-limiting and is caused by infection with herpes simplex virus.1 De- roofing a vesicle allows a Tzanck smear to be performed for diagnostic purposes, but debridement and release of fluid is not recommended because this can lead to viral spread. In severe cases, usually in immunocompromised patients, viral spread can result in encephalitis and even death. Herpetic whitlow should be treated with application of a dry dressing to reduce contact with the lesion, unless there is concern regarding superimposed bacterial infection (which is not evident in this case). There is no indication here for either antibiotics or antiviral medications in an otherwise healthy patient. A secondary bacterial infection would require debridement of purulent vesicles and a course of antibiotics.2

References:
  • 1. Louis DS, Silva J Jr. Herpetic whitlow: herpetic infections of the digits. J Hand Surg Am 1979;4(1):90–94
  • 2. Franko OI, Abrams RA. Hand infections. Orthop Clin North Am 2013;44(4):625–634
Question 4 of 14 VOLAR/DEEP SPACE ABSCESSES OF THE HAND
A female patient presents with exquisite tenderness in the thumb and little finger that is worse with flexion 3 days after sustaining mild trauma to the little finger pulp. The remaining digits are normal. Which one of the following hand spaces is associated with this clinical presentation?
A
Thenar space
B
Midvolar space
C
Parona’s space
D
Hypothenar space
E
Interdigital web space
✓ Correct Answer: C. Parona’s space
Clinical Explanation

This patient displays signs of a horseshoe abscess (Fig. 95.2). Parona’s space is located in the distal forearm between pronator quadratus and the flexor digitorum profundus tendons. An infection of either the little finger or thumb flexor sheaths can spread by a communication through the ulnar and radial bursae into Parona’s space. This explains why a patient can have an injury in the little finger presenting with a thumb flexor sheath infection. Other important spaces in the hand that may become infected are the midvolar, hypothenar, thenar, and interdigital spaces. Midvolar infections present with central palm pain and swelling with loss of concavity between thenar and hypothenar eminences. Thenar space infections present with local swelling and pain, which is worse on thumb opposition. Hypothenar space infections are rare and present with swelling and pain on little finger opposition. Collar button abscesses can form in the interdigital web spaces. They present with loss of web space contour and tenderness within the affected web space. Any suspected infected collections in the hand require urgent surgical drainage, usually supplemented with antibiotics. The normal surgical principles apply.1

References:
  • 1. Franko OI, Abrams RA. Hand infections. Orthop Clin North Am 2013;44(4):625–634
Question 5 of 14 FLEXOR TENOSYNOVITIS
A 45-year-old builder presents with a hot, swollen, painful left middle finger 3 days after stabbing himself in the palm with a screwdriver. His middle finger is flexed and has a fusiform shape. He cannot tolerate passive digital extension or direct, gentle pressure over the volar aspect of the digit. A small bead of pus is expressed at the site of his original injury. Which one of the following is correct?
A
Kanavel’s cardinal signs of flexor sheath infection are all present.
B
This can be adequately managed with high-dose antibiotics and splinting.
C
This is likely to be polymicrobial and will require at least two antibiotic types.
D
There are no specific risk factors here for a poor outcome following flexor sheath infection.
E
Minimal access incisions alone should be adequate for surgical management.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Kanavel’s cardinal signs of flexor sheath infection are all present.
Clinical Explanation

Kanavel’s four cardinal signs of a flexor sheath infection are: 1. Severe pain on passive extension of the digit 2. Fusiform swelling of the digit 3. Tenderness over the flexor tendon sheath 4. Partially flexed posture of the digit (added later to the original description) This patient displays all of these signs, as is quite typical for a more advanced infection. Some flexor sheath infections that present early with mild symptoms can be managed adequately with antibiotics, mobilization, and splinting alone.1 This is not usually effective for infections associated with a penetrating wound. This patient requires urgent surgical drainage because there is pus evident and there has been delayed management of the initial penetrating injury. Ideally, minimal access incisions are used for flexor sheath washout, provided the sheath can be irrigated well. This enables a quicker and more comfortable rehabilitation and reduces the likelihood of wound healing problems. At least a degree of palmar wound extension will be required in this case to explore and debride the initial puncture wound. With pus leaking from the palm, there is likely to be thicker pus in the sheath that will require more extensive access than an early infection would in order to irrigate adequately. The most common pathogen in flexor sheath infection is S. aureus alone, rather than a polymicrobial cause. Polymicrobial infections are more common in diabetic and other immunocompromised patients. Treatment is usually with a single penicillin-based antibiotic such as amoxicillin with clavulanic acid or flucloxacillin. This Fig. 95.2 Radial and ulnar bursas communicating with Parona’s space may cause a horseshoe abscess. Conduit for horseshoe abscess Abscess Radial bursa Ulnar bursa patient has two risk factors for a poor outcome following flexor sheath infection: age over 43 years and the presence of subcutaneous pus. Level II evidence has shown a number of other risk factors for poor outcome, which include the presence of diabetes, peripheral vascular or renal disease, and the presence of digital ischemia.1, 2

References:
  • 1. Steer AC, Lamagni T, Curtis N, Carapetis JR. Invasive group a streptococcal disease: epidemiology, pathogenesis and
  • management. Drugs 2012;72(9):1213–1227
  • 2. Pang HN, Teoh LC, Yam AK, Lee JY, Puhaindran ME, Tan AB. Factors affecting the prognosis of pyogenic flexor tenosyno-
  • vitis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2007;89(8):1742–1748
Question 6 of 14 MANAGEMENT OF A “FIGHT BITE”
A patient is seen for washout of a wound following a punch injury. There is a 1-cm transverse dorsal wound over the right ring finger metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint with evidence of pus and surrounding cellulitis. His hand is very swollen, and he is unable to fully extend the ring and middle fingers. Plain radiographs show no evidence of fracture or foreign body. Which one of the following is correct?
A
The wound edges require debridement, but wound extension should be avoided to prevent joint exposure.
B
After thorough irrigation with saline, any damage to the extensor tendon should be repaired immediately.
C
It is not necessary to formally explore the MCP joint in this case, given the radiologic findings.
D
Even if the wound is debrided and irrigated adequately, it should not be closed primarily.
E
The hand should be splinted with the MCP joints at 20 degrees to relax the joint capsule.
✓ Correct Answer: D. Even if the wound is debrided and irrigated adequately, it should not be closed primarily.
Clinical Explanation

Primary wound closure should be avoided in a “fight bite” and is definitely contraindicated if there is frank pus. Any tendon repair should be delayed until the wound is clean, and a monofilament suture is preferred to further reduce the risk of bacterial colonization at the repair site. The risk of joint capsule penetration is very high with these injuries; so, the capsule should be carefully inspected throughout the range of motion. Any resting splint should be in the safe position of immobilization and is particularly important when the hand is swollen. The wrist should be slightly extended, MCP joints flexed to approximately 70 degrees, and the IP joints straight.1 The key principles for managing these injuries are: 1. Promptly and thoroughly debride the wound edges and extend the wound to ensure adequate inspection of the tendon and joint capsule throughout the range of MCP joint motion. 2. Send deep specimens for microbiologic analysis. 3. Thoroughly irrigate the wound. Wash out the joint too if capsule is open or infected. 4. Do not primarily repair the joint capsule or tendon if there is frank pus. 5. Leave at least some part of the wound open for drainage. Consider closing the wound extensions using a monofilament nonabsorbable suture. 6. Dress the wound with a wick/pack to encourage drainage, a low-adherent dressing, gauze, wool, and crepe. 7. Apply a splint with the hand placed in the “safe” position. 8. Continue IV antibiotics and hand elevation, then reassess the wound and mobilize/soak in an antiseptic/soapy hand bath at 24 hours.

References:
  • 1. Joyce CW, O’ Regan A, Kelly JL, O’ Shaughnessy M. Fight bite injuries: aggressive tendencies associated with smaller
  • second to fourth digit ratio. J Hand Surg Asian Pac Vol 2017;22(4):452–456
Question 7 of 14 ANIMAL BITES
Which one of the following is correct regarding animal bites?
A
Dog bites represent 25% of all reported animal bites in the developed world.
B
Patients are usually bitten by animals not known to them.
C
Cat bites are more likely to become infected than dog bites.
D
Adults are more commonly bitten by animals than children.
E
Infection from Pasteurella multocida occurs exclusively in cat bites.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Cat bites are more likely to become infected than dog bites.
Clinical Explanation

Dog bites represent 90% of all animal bites in the developed world, whereas cat bites represent just 5%. Despite this massive difference, cat bites represent three quarters of all infected bites. This is probably because their long, thin teeth are more likely to cause narrow, deep puncture wounds prone to infection. Cat bites need early treatment with antibiotics and washout and can still take a prolonged time to settle. In over two-thirds of dog bites, the animal is known to the patient. Children younger than 5 years are at increased risk of dog bites with half of all dog bites occurring in this age group. P. multocida is associated with both cat and dog bites. Therefore, antibiotics must be selected to cover these and staphylococcus, streptococcus, and anaerobe pathogens.1,2

References:
  • 1. Kheiran A, Palial V, Rollett R, Wildin CJ, Chatterji U, Singh HP. Cat bite: an injury not to underestimate. J Plast Surg Hand
  • Surg 2019;53(6):341–346
  • 2. Franko OI, Abrams RA. Hand infections. Orthop Clin North Am 2013;44(4):625–634
Question 8 of 14 SEPTIC ARTHRITIS OF THE HAND AND WRIST
In a patient with a suspected wrist septic arthritis, which one of the following is true?
A
Joint fluid samples should be taken through the area of greatest erythema.
B
Synovial fluid analysis with WBC 10,000 cm3 is diagnostic of septic arthritis.
C
The presence of articular cartilage will prevent osteomyelitis developing.
D
Crystalline arthropathy is best differentiated from sepsis with radiographs.
E
In a child this may represent hematogenous spread of another infection.
✓ Correct Answer: E. In a child this may represent hematogenous spread of another infection.
Clinical Explanation

Septic arthritis is infection of a joint space and may be primary or represent hematogenous spread from an infective source elsewhere in the body. For this reason, it is important to exclude other sources of infection, particularly in children. Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Haemophilus influenza are the most common pathogens involved in joint infections. Diagnosis involves a good history and clinical assessment complemented by microscopy of a joint fluid sample. Plain radiographs, blood inflammatory markers, and urate levels should also usually be requested. A joint aspirate should ideally be obtained without passing the needle through obviously inflamed or wounded skin in order to avoid seeding of bacteria into a joint which actually is not infected, and to ensure a reliable sample is obtained. Fluid analysis with WBC >50,000 per mm3 (not 10,000 per cm3) is strongly suggestive of joint sepsis. An urgent Gram stain should be requested from the lab. Joint fluid also provides the best evidence for or against a crystal arthropathy, such as gout or pseudogout, and some of the fluid should be sent for crystal analysis. An infected joint requires urgent joint washout and antibiotics. Early mobilization with hand therapy and a resting splint in a safe position is required. Untreated septic arthritis may quickly and irreversibly erode the articular cartilage, resulting in arthritic changes and increasing the risk of progression to osteomyelitis.1

References:
  • 1. Jennings JD, Zielinski E, Tosti R, Ilyas AM. Septic arthritis of the wrist: incidence, risk factors, and predictors of infection.
  • Orthopedics 2017;40(3):e526–e531
Question 9 of 14
A diabetic patient presents with a rapidly progressing soft-tissue infection of the forearm. There is obvious crepitus within the soft tissues and overlying cellulitis with swelling. A diagnosis of gas gangrene is suspected. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be involved?
A
Clostridium perfringens
B
S. aureus
C
Streptococcus spp.
D
Eikenella corrodens
E
Bacteroides fragilis
✓ Correct Answer: A. Clostridium perfringens
Clinical Explanation

Gas gangrene is uncommon in the upper extremity but is a severe life-threatening infection caused by Clostridium species. There are more than 60 subtypes of Clostridium, but perfringens is most commonly associated with gas gangrene. Clostridia produce multiple toxins which cause local tissue destruction. Management involves rapid has a high mortality rate (approximately 25%). Necrotizing fasciitis is the main differential diagnosis, and this can either be polymicrobial or caused by group A Streptococci. Many soft-tissue infections are caused by S. aureus, including paronychia, flexor sheath infection, and felon. Eikenella is implicated in some human bites as are Streptococcus viridans and Bacteroides.1

References:
  • 1. Leiblein M, Wagner N, Adam EH, Frank J, Marzi I, Nau C. Clostridial gas gangrene - a rare but deadly infection: case series
  • and comparison to other necrotizing soft tissue infections. Orthop Surg 2020;12(6):1733–1747
Question 10 of 14 OSTEOMYELITIS IN THE HAND
An elderly man with poorly controlled diabetes and chronic renal failure presents with osteomyelitis destroying part of the distal and middle phalanges of his middle finger following a neglected infection of a mucus cyst. Which of the following best describes this presentation?
A
Class D host, type I osteomyelitis
B
Class C host, type II osteomyelitis
C
Class D host, type II osteomyelitis
D
Class C host, type IV osteomyelitis
E
Class A host, type IV osteomyelitis
✓ Correct Answer: D. Class C host, type IV osteomyelitis
Clinical Explanation

part of the distal and middle phalanges of his middle finger following a neglected infection of a mucus cyst. Cierney et al1 developed a classification for osteomyelitis that encourages consideration of both host and disease characteristics that can be useful for planning treatment. Physiologic class (host characteristics) A host: Normal host with good immune system B host: Local or systemic compromise C host: Markedly compromised host. Treatment of disease is more risky than disease itself Anatomic location Type I: Medullary osteomyelitis—limited to endosteum, most common is hematogenous cause or intramedullary fixation Type II: Superficial osteomyelitis—involves surface of bone Type III: Localized infection—both medullary and superficial; full-thickness sequestrum Type IV: Diffuse; bony instability By falling into the group C host, type IV location category of osteomyelitis, assessment of this patient is likely to guide the clinician toward a prompt, simple, low-risk local anesthetic terminalization of the affected digit rather than debridement and prolonged courses of antibiotics.2

References:
  • 1. Cierney GIN, Mader J, Penninck J. A clinical staging system for adult osteomyelitis. Contemp Orthop 1985;10:17–37
  • 2. Pinder R, Barlow G. Osteomyelitis of the hand. J Hand Surg Eur Vol 2016;41(4):431–440
Question 11 of 14 MANAGEMENT OF FUNGAL HAND INFECTIONS
A 74-year-old avid gardener presents to the clinic with a localized suppurative nodule to the fingertip that has been present for several weeks. He cannot recall any significant trauma to this finger but gets regular thorn pricks and scratches while gardening. Which one of the following is correct about this condition?
A
The diagnosis is onychomycosis and will probably resolve without active intervention.
B
Best management will involve nail plate removal and a 1-week course of antibiotic therapy.
C
Application of saturated solution of potassium iodide is the preferred current treatment modality.
D
An extended course of oral itraconazole or fluconazole is indicated in this case.
E
Trichophyton rubrum is the most common cause of such infections in the United States.
✓ Correct Answer: D. An extended course of oral itraconazole or fluconazole is indicated in this case.
Clinical Explanation

Common fungal infections of the upper extremity include sporotrichosis and onychomycosis. Sporotrichosis is a granulomatous fungal infection of the skin or subcutaneous tissue, while onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nail. The patient in this scenario is most likely to have a soft-tissue fungal infection acquired while gardening. The likely pathogen is Sporothrix schenckii which is typically sustained from a puncture wound during contact with rose thorns, moss, or other plants. For this reason, it is often called “rose handler’s disease.” The classic treatment described is the use of a saturated solution of potassium iodide, but this has now been supplanted by an extended oral course of itraconazole or fluconazole such as 3 to 6 months, or at least 4 weeks after resolution of symptoms. Patients tend to present with a nodule at a puncture site, which later ulcerates. This is followed by nodule formation along lymphatic channels, which then also ulcerate. A definitive diagnosis is made by fungal culture of a nodule aspirate. Onychomycosis is a fungal condition of the nail most often caused by T. rubrum. C. albicans is another common cause, particularly in diabetics. This condition results in an abnormal, thickened, and discolored nail plate. Fungal cultures are required to guide selection of antifungal therapies. For example, T. rubrum responds best to oral terbinafine, while C. albicans may require ketoconazole, itraconazole, or griseofulvin. Removal of the thickened nail plate can be useful, as it can reduce the duration required for oral antifungal therapy. Paronychia is an infection of the soft tissues surrounding the nail and can be acute or chronic. Acute paronychia is normally bacterial, whereas chronic paronychia is normally fungal. Acute paronychia is often best treated with a combination of antibiotics and wound debridement with nail plate removal. Chronic paronychia requires antifungal medication and may need marsupialization of the eponychial fold.

Question 12 of 14 PATHOGENS IN HAND INFECTIONS
A 50-year-old pet shop owner sustained a superficial glass injury at work while cleaning an aquarium. The wound has since healed, but he has developed painful superficial erythematous nodules nearby. What is the most likely pathogen involved?
A
Mycobacterium spp.
B
T. rubrum
C
P. multocida
D
Group A Streptococcus spp.
E
E. corrodens
✓ Correct Answer: A. Mycobacterium spp.
Clinical Explanation

The patient in this scenario has developed an atypical mycobacterial infection, also known as fish tank granuloma. It is caused by Mycobacterium marinum. Typical and atypical mycobacterial infections are rare and have a broad range of subtypes. These include tuberculous infections and leprosy. The diagnosis should be suspected where there is a chronic skin nodule (as in this case), a draining sinus tract, or another infection that fails to heal within a typical timeframe. A biopsy will show granulomas with negative fungal staining. Cultures can take an extended time to process due to the slow replication of mycobacteria and empiric antibiotic selection may be indicated while these are awaited. Treatment is likely to require surgical debridement followed by an extended course of antibiotics.1,2 T. rubrum represents a fungal infection that causes onychomycosis. This is treated with oral terbinafine. P. multocida is seen most commonly in cases of infected cat bites. These should be treated with debridement and irrigation in conjunction with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid or clindamycin. Group A Streptococcus spp. can cause an aggressive, rapidly progressing soft-tissue infection in previously fit individuals. Early recognition is required alongside prompt treatment with high-dose penicillin antibiotics in the first instance. E. corrodens is a common pathogen in human bite injuries and is generally responsive to combined amoxicillin and clavulanic acid.3

References:
  • 1. Veraldi S, Molle M, Nazzaro G. Eczema-like fish tank granuloma: a new clinical presentation of Mycobacterium marinum
  • infection. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol 2018;32(5): e200–e201
  • 2. Hashish E, Merwad A, Elgaml S, et al. Mycobacterium marinum infection in fish and man: epidemiology, pathophysiology
  • and management; a review. Vet Q 2018;38(1):35–46
  • 3. Soldatos T, Omar H, Sammer D, Chhabra A. Atypical infections versus inflammatory conditions of the hand: the role of
  • imaging in diagnosis. Plast Reconstr Surg 2015;136(2): 316–327
Question 13 of 14 BIOFILMS AND THEIR MANAGEMENT
Why are bacterial biofilms so difficult to treat?
A
They usually coexist with fungal spores.
B
The bacteria have altered genetics.
C
The bacteria have low adherence to synthetic structures.
D
The bacteria are protected by a polysaccharide matrix.
E
They most commonly involve methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA).
✓ Correct Answer: D. The bacteria are protected by a polysaccharide matrix.
Clinical Explanation

Biofilms can be a problem in plastic surgery, most commonly affecting implanted devices and chronic wounds. Biofilms are implicated in a variety of clinical infections, as well as in breast implant capsular contracture. Biofilms are particularly difficult to treat because they are strongly adherent to implanted devices and less healthy/nonviable tissue. Here, they form multiorganism colonies protected beneath an exopolysaccharide matrix. This isolates them from surrounding tissues and protects them from host defense mechanisms and antibiotics. The biofilm is often inactive for extended periods of time with no evidence of infection present. It can subsequently become activated to release certain free bacteria from beneath the polysaccharide matrix which are described as being in a planktonic state. When a wound is swabbed, it is only these planktonic bacteria that can be detected rather than the true polymicrobial activity going on beneath the matrix. As a result, antibiotic concentrations 1,000 times higher than normal may be required to penetrate a biofilm. Surgical debridement of chronic wounds and removal of nonviable tissue help reduce a biofilm, and prosthetic devices are generally exchanged or removed where a biofilm is present and causing infection. Bacterial biofilms do not usually coexist with fungal spores where the genetics of the bacteria are otherwise normal. MRSA has become increasingly common in recent years as a result of antibacterial resistance; however, this is not the main reason why biofilms are difficult to treat.1

References:
  • 1. Jamal M, Ahmad W, Andleeb S, et al. Bacterial biofilm and associated infections. J Chin Med Assoc 2018;81(1):7–11
Question 14 of 14 HIGH-PRESSURE INJECTION INJURIES
A patient inadvertently injects an oil-based material into a digit while using a high-pressure tool. Which one of the following is correct?
A
The dominant thumb is the most likely digit to be affected.
B
Urgent debridement and decompression is required.
C
Water-based solvents cause similar levels of tissue damage.
D
The risk of subsequent need for amputation is low.
E
Soft-tissue damage can be predicted by the size of the entry wound.
✓ Correct Answer: B. Urgent debridement and decompression is required.
Clinical Explanation

High-pressure injection injuries are a surgical emergency and can cause significant tissue damage through a small entry wound. Material is inadvertently injected into the digit at high pressure (often as high as 7000 psi). The most commonly involved digit is the nondominant index finger as the offending tool tends to be held in the dominant hand with the nondominant hand supporting the target object. These injuries need urgent surgical management with wound extension, irrigation, and tissue debridement. Both oil-based and water-based solvents can cause significant damage, but oil-based injuries tend to be worse and generate greater irritation of the soft tissues. Risk of amputation is high (up to 50%) after an oil-based, high-pressure injury such as paint injection. The entry wound does not provide much information with regard to the zone of tissue damage, so it is easy to underestimate its severity. Debridement often fails to remove all traces of injection material satisfactorily. If the fingertip is the entry point, material can frequently be identified in the forearm where it has been forced under pressure along the tendon sheath. This is in addition to the pressure insult to the soft tissues surrounding the entry point, for example, the fat of the pulp may be completely nonviable due to both barotrauma and foreign material contamination.1,2

References:
  • 1. Amsdell SL, Hammert WC. High-pressure injection injuries in the hand: current treatment concepts. Plast Reconstr Surg
  • 2013;132(4):586e–591e
  • 2. Bekler H, Gokce A, Beyzadeoglu T, Parmaksizoglu F. The surgical treatment and outcomes of high-pressure injection
  • injuries of the hand. J Hand Surg Eur Vol 2007;32(4):394–399

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