Part VI • Hand, Wrist, And Upper Extremity

Chapter 100: Vascular Disorders Of The Upper Extremity

Questions: 17
Answered: 0/17
Score: 0%
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Question 1 of 17 CLINICAL EVALUATION OF THE UPPER LIMB VASCULATURE
A 50-year-old man is referred with concerns over the upper limb arterial supply. The referring doctor states that the patient has early fatigue and pallor in the hands with moderate activity and reports a normal (negative) Allen test. What is the most accurate assessment based on this information?
A
That motor and sensory nerve functions are both clinically intact to the distal limb.
B
That exercise induced ischemia to the hand and forearm can be excluded.
C
There is adequate blood supply to the hand from either the ulnar or radial arteries at rest.
D
The referring doctor has already arranged vascular imaging in the form of computed tomography angiography (CTA).
E
There are no bruits or thrills detectable on clinical examination.
✓ Correct Answer: C. There is adequate blood supply to the hand from either the ulnar or radial arteries at rest.
Clinical Explanation

In most individuals, the brachial artery divides to form the radial and ulnar arteries just distal to the elbow. These two arteries are joined distally by an extensive collateral network involving the superficial and deep palmar arches. This means that in more than 90% of people, the radial artery can be sacrificed without compromising the blood supply to the hand; therefore, radial artery cannulation and radial artery harvest are usually safe. The Allen test was originally described by Dr. Allen in 1929 and in this first description it was used in the diagnosis of ulnar artery occlusion secondary to thromboangiitis obliterans. The test was performed by occluding the radial artery at the wrist after emptying the hand vasculature by clenching the fist for 1 minute.1,2 The test is now widely used to assess independent vascular integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries to the hand as well as their interconnection via the palmar arches. Ideally, the hand should remain well perfused when either the radial or ulnar vessels are occluded providing the palmar arches are intact. The Allen test may be described as abnormal in cases where there is ulnar artery occlusion. It is better to describe it as abnormal rather than “positive,” as it can be confusing to remember what “positive” or “negative” can mean in such tests. The Allen test is a simple procedure yielding consistent results, and its ability to predict perfusion of the hand following radial artery harvesting has been demonstrated.2–4 It can be a useful part of the upper limb vascular assessment particularly where there may be signs of decreased perfusion or where the radial or ulnar arteries may be required for harvest. A normal Allen test does not exclude exercise-induced ischemia to the limb, as it assesses only perfusion at rest. It may be that there is a partial occlusion/compression of the distal ulnar artery by a mass or fascial band for example, which allows sufficient flow at rest but not during exertion. A full physical exam of the upper limb should include assessment of the appearance of the hand and fingers including skin color, temperature, turgor, nails, and capillary refill. It should also include a full assessment of motor and sensory nerve function as well as assessment of distal pulses, any obvious masses, and bruits. Any abnormal findings can direct the examiner to consider more specific tests. The Allen test does not provide information regarding the motor or sensory nerve function, nor whether any imaging has been performed.

References:
  • 1. Allen EV. Thromboangiitis obliterans. Am J Med Sci 1929;2:1–8
  • 2. Cable DG, Mullany CJ, Schaff HV. The Allen test. Ann Thorac Surg 1999;67(3):876–877
  • 3. Lippert H, Pabst R. Arterial Variations in Man Classification and Frequency. Munich, Germany: JF Bergmann Verlag
  • Munchen; 1985
Question 2 of 17 IMAGING OF THE UPPER LIMB VASCULATURE
Which one of the following characteristics of conventional angiography contributes to making it the gold standard for assessing the upper extremity vasculature?
A
It negates the risk for intravenous (IV) contrast.
B
It is quick and noninvasive.
C
It avoids the need for ionizing radiation.
D
It is the cheapest imaging modality.
E
It allows treatment to be given simultaneously.
✓ Correct Answer: E. It allows treatment to be given simultaneously.
Clinical Explanation

Conventional angiography remains the gold standard for assessing the upper extremity vasculature in most settings. It is an invasive test that requires arterial access (typically in the groin or contralateral radial artery) and catheter placement in the desired location. It remains the best study to determine stenosis and occlusion in small distal vessels, particularly in patients with calcified vessels when artifact may prevent accurate examination by other modalities. A particular strength of this modality is that endovascular intervention can be undertaken at the same time as diagnostic angiogram. Unfortunately, angiography does expose the patient to ionizing radiation and IV contrast dye as well as the possibility of access complications (e.g., hematoma, arteriovenous [AV] fistula formation).1 CTA/computed tomographic venography is another common modality for assessing the upper extremity vasculature, particularly in the setting of trauma. It is quick with high-quality images and may be used in patients in whom magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is contraindicated. Disadvantages include exposure to ionizing radiation and contrast dye (which can induce contrast nephropathy and acute kidney injury). Usually, iodine-based contrast agents used in CT are responsible for this effect.2 In contrast, magnetic resonance angiography (MRA/MRV) does not expose the patient to ionizing radiation and the contrast material (gadolinium) used is less nephrotoxic than the iodine-based materials used in CT. However, MRA is more expensive, time consuming, and does not allow for endovascular intervention. While gadolinium is far less nephrotoxic than iodine-based contrast, it is not risk free. For example, it may carry a risk of deposition in the brain, which as yet has no proven specific morbidity, but may do so in the future.3 Ultrasound has a major role in the assessment of upper limb vasculature, especially in vascular malformations. It is pain free, noninvasive, nonionizing, and low cost. Traditionally, it has been limited by the availability of a suitably trained sonographer or radiologist, but with recent advances in technology and equipment availability many surgeons have the potential to develop sonography skills to use in their everyday clinical practice.1

References:
  • 1. Sumner DS. Noninvasive assessment of upper extremity and hand ischemia. J Vasc Surg 1986;3(3):560–564
  • 2. Hasebroock KM, Serkova NJ. Toxicity of MRI and CT contrast agents. Expert Opin Drug Metab Toxicol 2009;5(4):403–416
  • 3. Kanda T, Ishii K, Kawaguchi H, Kitajima K, Takenaka D. High signal intensity in the dentate nucleus and globus pallidus
  • on unenhanced T1-weighted MR images: relationship with increasing cumulative dose of a gadolinium-based contrast
  • material. Radiology 2014;270(3):834–841
Question 3 of 17 MANAGEMENT OF THE ACUTELY ISCHEMIC LIMB
A patient presents with evidence of a spontaneous acute arterial obstruction to the left upper limb. The hand and forearm are cool, pale, and painful. No distal pulses are palpable. Which one of the following represents the standard approach to treatment?
A
Low-molecular-weight heparin and embolectomy
B
Embolectomy combined with intra-arterial urokinase
C
Intra-arterial urokinase followed by a calcium channel blocker
D
IV heparin and embolectomy followed by outpatient warfarin therapy
E
IV heparin and open bypass graft followed by outpatient warfarin therapy
✓ Correct Answer: D. IV heparin and embolectomy followed by outpatient warfarin therapy
Clinical Explanation

Emboli to the upper extremity are relatively uncommon representing less than 20% of all embolic events. However, when they do occur, it is a surgical emergency that requires multifaceted management. The five Ps associated with acute arterial obstruction are: Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, poikilothermia) as evident in this case. The standard treatment for acute arterial obstruction is immediate IV heparin therapy in combination with an embolectomy using a Fogarty catheter. This procedure is generally performed by the vascular team. Subsequent anticoagulation treatment with either warfarin or low-molecular-weight heparin is required to prevent recurrence. Other newer alternative medical therapies such as apixaban or rivaroxaban may be considered instead of warfarin. Intra-arterial thrombolysis of the distal upper extremity is not standard practice but has been shown to be effective in select cases. When this is performed, both a thrombolytic agent such as urokinase and a calcium channel blocker are used to achieve simultaneous vasodilation and thrombolysis. Management of emboli secondary to penetrating trauma such as catheter-related brachial artery occlusions is managed differently because many patients will continue to have compromised circulation even once the thrombosis is removed. In these cases, it may be necessary to perform open repair of the involved artery with primary resection and repair, or an interposition vein graft. Long-term anticoagulation is not necessarily required in such cases.1–3

References:
  • 1. Andersen LV, Lip GY, Lindholt JS, Frost L. Upper limb arterial thromboembolism: a systematic review on incidence, risk
  • factors, and prognosis, including a meta-analysis of risk-modifying drugs. J Thromb Haemost 2013;11(5):836–844
  • 2. Koman AL, Smith BP, Smith TL, Ruch DSLZ. Vascular disorders. In: Green’s Operative Hand Surgery. 6th ed. Philadelphia,
  • PA: Elsevier Inc.; 2011:2197–2240
  • 3. Lyaker MR, Tulman DB, Dimitrova GT, Pin RH, Papadimos TJ. Arterial embolism. Int J Crit Illn Inj Sci 2013;3(1):77–87
  • MANAGEMENT OF VASCULAR HAND PROBLEMS
  • 4. A patient is seen in hand clinic where she describes episodes where the hand and digits become pale, cool, and
  • painful. These attacks are short lived and following a period of color change in the affected digit from white to
  • blue to red, before things return to normal spontaneously. Which one of the following would be the next step in
  • the treatment for this patient if calcium channel blockers had failed to help?
  • B. Botulinum toxin injection
  • This patient has Raynaud’s disease based on the clinical presentation. This is a condition in which there is
  • spontaneous, self-limiting, reversible vasospasm in the digital vessels leading to rapid-onset ischemia followed
  • by hyperemia.
  • Most cases do not require intervention and treatment begins with avoiding cold temperatures and wearing
  • warm, loose-fitting clothing such as hats and gloves. Beyond this, first-line medical management involves calcium
  • channel blockers such as nifedipine for their vasodilatory properties. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors may also be
  • effective, as they can increase the availability or effects of nitric oxide which is a powerful vasodilator.
  • The next step would be to consider using botulinum toxin injections around the neurovascular bundles of the
  • affected digits, as this has proven to be effective in reducing pain and improving tissue perfusion in such cases.1
  • Botulinum toxin works by preventing neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft via the SNAP-25 pathway
  • and is injected on the volar aspect of the digit under the dermis into the interstitial fluid surrounding the digital
  • neurovascular bundles. A typical treatment involves 100 U dissolved in 10 mL of normal saline. The hand is
  • injected in 10 places with 1 mL aliquots of the solution.1 Studies show that botulinum toxin A injections help with
  • pain relief, increase blood flow to fingers, and can improve overall hand function. Potential side effects include
  • anhidrosis and hand/grip weakness. The long-term effects and toxicity are presently unknown.1
  • Beyond this, potential surgical treatment options include cervical sympathectomy which is still considered
  • controversial and may offer only temporary relief, or digital sympathectomy which may be beneficial for a select
  • number of patients with severe, tissue-threatening disease that is unresponsive to other treatment modalities.2,3
  • Bleomycin is a traditional chemotherapy medication used to treat vascular malformations and some skin
  • cancers with electrochemotherapy. Oxymetazoline is a topical decongestant that acts as a vasoconstrictor and
  • is used in the nasal mucosa. Neither has a role in the management of Raynaud’s.
  • 1. Mannava S, Plate JF, Stone AV, et al. Recent advances for the management of Raynaud phenomenon using botulinum
  • neurotoxin A. J Hand Surg Am 2011;36(10):1708–1710
  • 2. McCall TE, Petersen DP, Wong LB. The use of digital artery sympathectomy as a salvage procedure for severe ischemia
  • of Raynaud’s disease and phenomenon. J Hand Surg Am 1999;24(1):173–177
  • 3. Flatt AE. Digital artery sympathectomy. J Hand Surg Am 1980;5(6):550–556
Question 4 of 17 MANAGEMENT OF VASCULAR HAND PROBLEMS
A patient is seen in hand clinic where she describes episodes where the hand and digits become pale, cool, and painful. These attacks are short lived and following a period of color change in the affected digit from white to blue to red, before things return to normal spontaneously. Which one of the following would be the next step in the treatment for this patient if calcium channel blockers had failed to help?
A
Bleomycin injection
B
Botulinum toxin injection
C
Oxymetazoline administration
D
Cervical sympathectomy
E
Digital sympathectomy
✓ Correct Answer: B. Botulinum toxin injection
Clinical Explanation

4. Komeda M, Buxton BF, Raman J, Mullaly L, Hare DL. Allen test — new value of the “old” test. J Am Coll Cardiol 1998;31(Ab- stract):425

Question 5 of 17 UPPER EXTREMITY ANEURYSMS
When assessing a patient with a suspected upper limb aneurysm, which one of the following is true?
A
It is most likely to be a “true” aneurysm.
B
It is most likely to be secondary to trauma.
C
Cold intolerance would be a key pathognomic clinical finding.
D
Imaging would show a fusiform-shape deformity.
E
Management would be prescriptive and strongly evidence based.
✓ Correct Answer: B. It is most likely to be secondary to trauma.
Clinical Explanation

Aneurysms are classified as either true or false according to the layers of the arterial wall involved. True aneurysms involve all three layers of the arterial wall (intima, media, and adventitia) where false aneurysms do not. Instead, they represent a collection of blood leaking out of a vessel that is confined by the surrounding tissue. False aneurysms are far more common in the upper limb and typically result from arterial perforation such as arterial cannulation or blood gas sampling (i.e., iatrogenic injury). Blood leaks into surrounding tissue and the hematoma later resolves and is replaced with scar. There is no single specific clinical finding with a suspected aneurysm, although frequently a pulsatile painful mass is felt at the site. Other potential signs include cold intolerance, altered sensation, distal embolism, and thrombosis causing critical limb ischemia. Radiologic imaging can help differentiate between true and false aneurysms, which are fusiform or saccular in shape, respectively. There are limited data to guide management of upper extremity aneurysms, but a treatment plan must be individualized to the symptoms of the patient and may include observation only, surgical excision and ligation, or surgical excision and revascularization.1,2

References:
  • 1. Igari K, Kudo T, Toyofuku T, Jibiki M, Inoue Y. Surgical treatment of aneurysms in the upper limbs. Ann Vasc Dis
  • 2013;6(3):637–641
  • 2. Gray RJ, Stone WM, Fowl RJ, Cherry KJ, Bower TC. Management of true aneurysms distal to the axillary artery. J Vasc
  • Surg 1998;28(4):606–610
Question 6 of 17 MANAGEMENT OF SUPRACONDYLAR FRACTURES IN CHILDREN
A 7-year-old girl falls from a tree and sustains a left supracondylar humeral fracture. Her left hand is cold and pale on admission and remains this way following closed fracture reduction. She states her finger and thumb feel “fuzzy.” Which one of the following is the next key step in managing this patient?
A
Doppler ultrasound
B
Arteriography
C
Embolectomy
D
CT angiography
E
Open surgical exploration
✓ Correct Answer: E. Open surgical exploration
Clinical Explanation

This patient has sustained a common childhood fracture that can be associated with damage to the brachial artery either during the initial injury or during fracture reduction. Loss of arterial flow can occur due to direct compression of the artery within the fracture site or secondary to arterial thrombosis following intimal damage. A persistent abnormality after fracture reduction requires urgent investigation and warrants operative exploration. Brachial artery thrombectomy with arterial repair or vein grafting should be anticipated. This would normally be undertaken with a multidisciplinary approach involving plastic, orthopaedic, and vascular surgeons. It is vital to assess neurovascular status of these children at multiple stages. While this child has a frankly ischemic limb and there is no question that this should be explored, there is perhaps unexpectedly greater controversy regarding the pink pulseless limb. Even if the limb is pink, if it remains pulseless postreduction, it is better to avoid missing a treatable arterial injury and explore the limb.1 An associated neuropathy in a pink pulseless limb, particularly of the median nerve, further increases the likelihood of the brachial artery injury being sufficient to require surgical management and should aid the decision to explore.2 Intraoperatively, the median nerve should be identified just as carefully as the brachial artery, and normal status documented, or repair undertaken, as this lies in close proximity to the artery and is also at risk of injury in a supracondylar fracture. No further imaging is required in this case, but noninvasive Doppler studies may be helpful in documenting abnormal pulses in an injured extremity, where there remains uncertainty about distal perfusion. Arteriography is best avoided in children because of the risk of iatrogenic damage. Embolectomy alone would not be recommended as the artery and median nerve need to be visualized along with the fracture site in this case. The cause of the occlusion (the fracture) must also be addressed.3,4

References:
  • 1. Towler R, Corfield L, Carrell T. “The pink pulseless hand”—not a benign condition. Neurovascular compromise in paediatric
  • supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Arch Dis Child 2010;95:A39–A40
  • 2. Mangat KS, Martin AG, Bache CE. The ‘pulseless pink’ hand after supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children: the
  • predictive value of nerve palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2009;91(11):1521–1525
  • 3. Kumar V, Singh A. Fracture supracondylar humerus: a review. J Clin Diagn Res 2016;10(12):RE01–RE06
  • 4. Vaquero-Picado A, González-Morán G, Moraleda L. Management of supracondylar fractures of the humerus in children.
  • EFORT Open Rev 2018;3(10):526–540
Question 7 of 17 RAYNAUD’S DISEASE
A 50-year-old woman presents with a diagnosis of Raynaud’s disease managed by her general practitioner. For the past 5 years she has had episodes in cold weather where her fingers become pale, then blue, before turning bright red. Which one of the following is correct regarding this woman’s condition?
A
She will almost certainly have signs of systemic sclerosis.
B
Her diagnosis forms part of a systemic autoimmune condition.
C
The age at which she first experienced symptoms is typical of this condition.
D
Use of regular nifedipine would be contraindicated in this case.
E
Vasospasm and hyperemia may not be limited to the hands and feet.
✓ Correct Answer: E. Vasospasm and hyperemia may not be limited to the hands and feet.
Clinical Explanation

Raynaud’s disease and Raynaud’s phenomenon are distinctly different, although the terms are often used interchangeably. Raynaud’s disease (primary Raynaud’s) is a condition that involves reversible ischemia of peripheral tissues secondary to vasospasm. It is most commonly treated with nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, although phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as sildenafil may be helpful too. Other medications sometimes prescribed include angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, α-blockers, nitrates, and the selective serotonin receptor uptake inhibitor fluoxetine. Raynaud’s phenomenon (secondary Raynaud’s) refers to the same vasospasm process in association with another illness, which is most commonly autoimmune. The most common association with Raynaud’s phenomenon is scleroderma; however, it is not a given she will have this. Patients first presenting with Raynaud’s should be investigated for an autoimmune condition. In Raynaud’s disease, fingers are most commonly affected, but the nose, ears, and toes may also be involved. Raynaud’s disease can occur at any age, although commonly begins in the second or third decade and is not the typical age of first presentation in this case (i.e., age 45 years). Raynaud’s phenomenon tends to present later in adult life.1,2

References:
  • 1. Wigley FM. Clinical practice. Raynaud’s phenomenon. N Engl J Med 2002;347(13):1001–1008
  • 2. Herrick AL. Evidence-based management of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Ther Adv Musculoskelet Dis 2017;9(12):317–329
Question 8 of 17 THORACIC OUTLET SYNDROME
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding neurologic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)?
A
The most common cause is a cervical rib.
B
Males and females are equally affected.
C
Clinical examination is commonly unremarkable.
D
Adson’s test is a reliable provocative test.
E
Surgical decompression is performed via an endoscopic approach.
✓ Correct Answer: C. Clinical examination is commonly unremarkable.
Clinical Explanation

Clinical examination findings are frequently normal in TOS, although certain provocative tests aim to aid identification, and so a careful history is very important. Although cervical ribs are involved in most arterial cases, they are rarely present in venous and neurologic cases. The most common site of neurologic compression is the scalene triangle (between the anterior scalene, middle scalene, and upper border of the first rib) and many patients have congenital fibromuscular bands in this region. Females are more commonly affected by TOS than males, and this difference is most apparent in neurologic TOS, with a ratio of 3.5:1. Adson’s test assesses the radial pulse during compression of the subclavian artery with positional change but is unreliable, as patients without TOS may have considerable positional pulse variation.1 Surgical decompression is usually performed using an open supraclavicular approach, or less commonly transaxillary.1

References:
  • 1. Plewa MC, Delinger M. The false-positive rate of thoracic outlet syndrome shoulder maneuvers in healthy subjects. Acad
  • Emerg Med 1998;5(4):337–342
Question 9 of 17 HEMANGIOMAS IN THE UPPER LIMB
You are discussing hemangiomas with the parents of a 1-year-old infant with a vascular lesion on their arm. Which one of the following should you advise the parents?
A
They are always present at birth.
B
They will always eventually spontaneously involute.
C
There is a high risk of bleeding requiring treatment.
D
They are a subtype of vascular malformation.
E
They do not normally require surgical intervention.
✓ Correct Answer: E. They do not normally require surgical intervention.
Clinical Explanation

Hemangiomas are a type of vascular tumor that may arise in utero or during the first few weeks of life. They are therefore classified as either infantile or congenital, depending on the time of first presentation. They are distinctly different from vascular malformations.1 Classic infantile lesions show three phases of growth, with first appearance as a vascular papule followed by rapid growth, then involution. Traditional teaching suggests that by the age of 7, approximately 70% of infantile hemangiomas have spontaneously involuted, but not all subtypes do so. Congenital hemangiomas are mature at birth and are classified by their natural history as either rapidly involuting (RICH) or noninvoluting (NICH). Because most hemangiomas involute, surgical intervention is not usually required. Problematic hemangiomas, such as those that ulcerate or affect function, may be treated with surgery, sclerotherapy, laser therapy, or beta-blocker medication. Those that leave a fibrofatty remnant or skin excess may also benefit from surgical excision.1–3

References:
  • 1. Mulliken JB, Glowacki J. Classification of pediatric vascular lesions. Plast Reconstr Surg 1982;70(1):120–121
  • 2. Couto RA, Maclellan RA, Zurakowski D, Greene AK. Infantile hemangioma: clinical assessment of the involuting phase
  • and implications for management. Plast Reconstr Surg 2012;130(3):619–624
  • 3. Mulliken JB. Diagnosis and natural history of hemangiomas. In: Mulliken JB, Burrows PE, Fishman SJ, eds. Mulliken and
  • Young’s Vascular Anomalies: Hemangiomas and Malformations. Oxford University Press; 2013
Question 10 of 17 ARTERIOVENOUS MALFORMATIONS
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding arteriovenous malformations?
A
They develop in utero during the first trimester.
B
Their causes are well understood.
C
Most malformations are familial.
D
Females are more commonly affected than males.
E
Malformations are clinically evident at birth.
✓ Correct Answer: A. They develop in utero during the first trimester.
Clinical Explanation

Vascular malformations are inborn errors in embryonic development that occur between weeks 4 and 10 of intrauterine growth. The causes are not well understood and most occur spontaneously. Males and females are equally affected, and although all malformations are present at birth, they may not be clinically evident. For example, a triggering stimulus during puberty or pregnancy can precipitate the first clinical signs of the malformation.1–4

References:
  • 1. Mulliken JB, Glowacki J. Classification of pediatric vascular lesions. Plast Reconstr Surg 1982;70(1):120–121
  • 2. Wassef M, Blei F, Adams D, et al; ISSVA Board and Scientific Committee. Vascular anomalies classification: recommen-
  • dations from the International Society for the Study of Vascular Anomalies. Pediatrics 2015;136(1):e203–e214
  • 3. Ek ET, Suh N, Carlson MG. Vascular anomalies of the hand and wrist. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2014;22(6):352–360
  • 4. Taghinia AH, Upton J. Vascular anomalies. J Hand Surg Am 2018;43(12):1113–1121
Question 11 of 17 GLOMUS TUMORS
When examining a patient with a suspected glomus tumor, which one of the following is most likely to be true?
A
A consistent finding will be a solitary painless vascular lesion on one digit.
B
Love’s sign should be routinely used to establish the diagnosis.
C
The effects of inflating a tourniquet can reliably aid confirmation of the diagnosis.
D
Abnormal skin color changes from white to blue then red are characteristically observed.
E
The condition will be limited to the hand and if similar signs are present elsewhere, they indicate an alternative diagnosis.
✓ Correct Answer: C. The effects of inflating a tourniquet can reliably aid confirmation of the diagnosis.
Clinical Explanation

Glomus tumors are benign vascular lesions containing cells from the glomus apparatus involved in thermoregulation that commonly affect the nail bed and fingertip. They often present as a bluish discoloration under the nail plate, with or without nail ridging. Although lesions are often painful and solitary, this is not always the case and multiple painful or painless lesions may be present. Hildreth’s sign is observed in patients with glomus tumors of the hand, where pain is abolished on exsanguination of the limb with inflation of a blood pressure cuff. There is supporting evidence to show the efficacy of this test in the diagnosis of glomus tumors, with sensitivity and specificity above 90%.1 Love’s sign is elicited when point pressure is applied to the nail bed with a pinhead at the site of the tumor, resulting in intense pain. There are usually enough other signs to make a diagnosis without performing this test, which is clearly unpleasant for the patient. The skin color changes described here are more characteristic of those described by patients with Raynaud’s disease, where the hand passes through a series of vascular changes: white (pallor), blue (cyanosis), and red (hyperemia). Although most cases of glomus tumor (75%) are found in the hand, the condition is not exclusively seen in this site. They may be present in the toes or even in extracutaneous sites such as bone and the gastrointestinal tract. Following examination, further imaging with ultrasound or MRI may be useful. Treatment of upper limb glomus tumors is with surgical excision.2,3

References:
  • 1. Giele H. Hildreth’s test is a reliable clinical sign for the diagnosis of glomus tumours. J Hand Surg [Br] 2002;27(2):157–158
  • 2. Vasisht B, Watson HK, Joseph E, Lionelli GT. Digital glomus tumors: a 29-year experience with a lateral subperiosteal
  • approach. Plast Reconstr Surg 2004;114(6):1486–1489
  • 3. Al-Qattan MM, Al-Namla A, Al-Thunayan A, Al-Subhi F, El-Shayeb AF. Magnetic resonance imaging in the diagnosis of
  • glomus tumours of the hand. J Hand Surg [Br] 2005;30(5):535–540
Question 12 of 17 COLD INTOLERANCE AND PAIN TO THE UPPER LIMB
A right-hand–dominant, self-employed carpenter presents to clinic with chronic cold intolerance and pain to the right little and ring fingers. Examination reveals early signs of ulceration to these digits. He is otherwise well with no other systemic signs of vasculopathy. Which one of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A
True aneurysm
B
False aneurysm
C
Venous thrombosis
D
Glomus tumor
E
Raynaud’s phenomenon
✓ Correct Answer: A. True aneurysm
Clinical Explanation

This patient has hypothenar hammer syndrome where repetitive blunt trauma to the hypothenar area leads to a true aneurysm (not false) of the ulnar artery in the area of Guyon’s canal. This typically occurs in upholsterers, carpenters, and carpet layers. The repetitive trauma results in tunica media damage followed by aneurysm formation and then eventual arterial thrombosis (not venous). Patients present with cold intolerance, pain at night or with repetitive activity, and skin changes to the ulnar digits. If neglected, the digits can ulcerate.1,2 Patients with minimal symptoms, but normal flow through the radial artery, and a complete palmar arch can be observed, and symptoms treated medically, with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) and a calcium channel blocker (nifedipine). However, patients with a proven aneurysm, recurrent embolic events, or persistent symptoms despite medical management require surgical intervention with resection of the affected arterial segment and, most likely, reconstruction of the damaged section of the ulnar artery with a vein graft. This procedure also allows for simultaneous decompression of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal which can help alleviate nerve compression symptoms that may also be present secondary to the aneurysm. Unfortunately, repair and revascularization may fail early due to the local anatomy and background cause without lifestyle alteration, i.e., stopping the regular trauma which caused the problem in the first instance.1,2 A false aneurysm tends to occur following arterial puncture as an acute trauma and is usually iatrogenic. Most will settle spontaneously, although a minority will also require surgery to excise the damaged section and graft it. Venous thrombosis typically presents with a swollen upper limb with signs of venous congestion such as bluish skin discoloration and altered capillary refill. Glomus tumors affect the digits most usually at the level of the nail bed resulting in painful subcutaneous nodules. Raynaud’s phenomenon more typically presents with bilateral bouts of ischemia to the digits, which are self-limiting and resolve spontaneously. Neither of these conditions would present as in this scenario.

References:
  • 1. Cigna E, Spagnoli AM, Tarallo M, et al. Therapeutic management of hypothenar hammer syndrome causing ulnar nerve
  • entrapment. Plastic Surgery International 2010;2010:Article ID 343820, 1-5 pages
  • 2. Hui-Chou HG, McClinton MA. Current options for treatment of hypothenar hammer syndrome. Hand Clin 2015;31(1):53–
Question 13 of 17 VASCULAR CHANGES IN THE FINGERTIPS
A 54-year-old woman presents to clinic with a history of cold hypersensitivity and paroxysmal pain affecting the index fingertip. Examination shows a slight blue discoloration to the nail bed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Venous thrombosis
B
Autoimmune vasculitis
C
Hemangioma
D
Lymphangioma
E
Glomus tumor
✓ Correct Answer: E. Glomus tumor
Clinical Explanation

This woman has the typical features of a glomus tumor, which is a benign vascular lesion commonly affecting the fingertip, most often beneath the nail plate. The glomus apparatus contains an AV shunt that contributes to temperature regulation. The classic clinical triad observed with glomus tumors is cold hypersensitivity, paroxysmal pain, and pinpoint tenderness. Glomus tumors may be classified into three groups: solitary lesions, multiple painful lesions, or multiple painless lesions. Imaging can sometimes be useful with MRI or Doppler ultrasound prior to treatment. MRI may typically show a dark, well-defined lesion on T1-weighted images and a bright lesion on T2-weighted images.1,2 Doppler ultrasound studies can help detect the high blood flow in glomus tumors. Surgical excision of the lesion is generally the treatment of choice, either directly through sterile nail matrix or with a lateral subperiosteal approach.

References:
  • 1. Al-Qattan MM, Al-Namla A, Al-Thunayan A, Al-Subhi F, El-Shayeb AF. Magnetic resonance imaging in the diagnosis of
  • glomus tumours of the hand. J Hand Surg [Br] 2005;30(5):535–540
  • 2. Drapé JL. Imaging of tumors of the nail unit. Clin Podiatr Med Surg 2004;21(4):493–511, v
Question 14 of 17 DIAGNOSIS OF VASCULAR LIMB DISORDERS
A 30-year-old left-hand–dominant soldier presents with a 3-month history of dull ache and weakness in the left arm. The pain is exacerbated by activity and the arm fatigues easily. He has not experienced any altered sensation to the limb. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
A
Buerger’s disease
B
Compartment syndrome
C
Arterial thrombosis
D
Venous thrombosis
E
Thoracic outlet syndrome
✓ Correct Answer: E. Thoracic outlet syndrome
Clinical Explanation

Thoracic outlet syndrome refers to compression of the neurovascular structures of the upper limb as they pass between the neck/thorax and axilla. It can involve variable combinations of neurovascular signs and symptoms. The patient in this scenario is most likely to have TOS with an arterial component. This would explain the exercise- induced ischemic pain he is experiencing and the time frame over which the problems have been present. The most commonly affected structures in TOS are the brachial plexus (95%), subclavian vein (4%), and subclavian artery (1%). Most presentations are nonemergent and require only symptomatic treatment and referral. There are a number of potential anatomical compression points including the Scalene triangle (between the anterior scalene, middle scalene, and first rib), cervical ribs, and congenital fibromuscular bands of the cervical transverse processes. Arterial problems tend to be associated with the first two areas of compression. Treatment in this case will be to address the site of compression and then to address any ongoing vascular abnormalities.1,2 Buerger’s disease may present in a similar age patient but would tend to affect the lower limb. Compartment syndrome would present with acute-onset pain and swelling to the affected limb, most often after trauma. An arterial thrombosis would tend to present with a pale, cool ischemic limb, while a venous thrombosis would tend to present with a swollen congested limb.1–3

References:
  • 1. Oates SD, Daley RA. Thoracic outlet syndrome. Hand Clin 1996;12(4):705–718
  • 2. Huang JH, Zager EL. Thoracic outlet syndrome. Neurosurgery 2004;55(4):897–902, discussion 902–903
  • 3. Hood DB, Kuehne J, Yellin AE, Weaver FA. Vascular complications of thoracic outlet syndrome. Am Surg 1997;63(10):913–
Question 15 of 17 DIAGNOSIS OF VASCULAR LIMB PROBLEMS
A 26-year-old athlete has been working out at the gym and notices that his right arm has become swollen and purple with distended veins. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
A
Buerger’s disease
B
Autoimmune vasculitis
C
Arterial thrombosis
D
Venous thrombosis
E
Raynaud’s disease
✓ Correct Answer: D. Venous thrombosis
Clinical Explanation

The patient in this scenario has evidence of acute-onset venous thrombosis of the upper limb, most likely the subclavian vein. This is termed effort vein thrombosis when associated with vigorous upper limb exercise in a healthy individual, as in this case, and can be caused by an underlying undiagnosed thoracic outlet compression. It is a rare condition that tends to affect young, active, and otherwise healthy people and is also known as Paget– Schröetter syndrome. It is thought to occur as a result of repetitive minor trauma to the subclavian vein where it passes between the first rib and clavicle. This type of venous thrombosis is distinctly different from other forms of deep vein thrombosis with respect to the underlying pathophysiology, clinical presentation, and functional consequences, so requires swift management of the thrombus in the acute setting followed by addressing the underlying cause. Management will therefore likely involve early catheter-based venography, thrombolytic therapy, and prompt paraclavicular thoracic outlet decompression with direct subclavian vein reconstruction.1 Buerger’s disease would tend to present in a young patient with signs of limb ischemia similar to an older patient with atherosclerotic disease. An arterial thrombosis would present with a white, cool peripheral limb and would normally be managed with embolectomy. Autoimmune vasculitis can present with numbness and coldness to the affected limb with easy fatigability and altered pulses. There will usually be other systemic clues in the history that raise suspicion of a vasculitis such vascular compromise to internal organs (bowel and kidney), jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and skin changes.2

References:
  • 1. Thompson RW. Comprehensive management of subclavian vein effort thrombosis. Semin Intervent Radiol
  • 2012;29(1):44–51
  • 2. Okazaki T, Shinagawa S, Mikage H. Vasculitis syndrome-diagnosis and therapy. J Gen Fam Med 2017;18(2):72–78
Question 16 of 17 DIAGNOSIS OF VASCULAR LIMB CONDITIONS
A 29-year-old man presents to clinic with a few months history of calf pain when walking. He is not diabetic and has no other specific medical comorbidities. Examination reveals cool, pale feet with palpable pulses. His upper limbs are unaffected, but significant digital tar staining is evident. What is the most likely effective treatment for this patient given his symptoms?
A
Smoking cessation
B
Acetylsalicylic acid
C
Low-molecular-weight heparin
D
Nifedipine
E
Rivaroxaban
✓ Correct Answer: A. Smoking cessation
Clinical Explanation

The patient in this scenario demonstrates features of Buerger’s disease, which includes intermittent claudication of the lower limbs, poor lower limb perfusion, and sparing of the upper limbs in a young person who smokes heavily. The tar staining and lack of other medical comorbidities are strongly suggestive of this diagnosis, which is characterized by inflammatory thrombi affecting both arteries and veins. It typically presents, as in this case, with claudication and later progresses to pain at rest and tissue necrosis. The only proven treatment is complete cessation of smoking; so, support in this is the best management for the scenario given.1 Low-molecular-weight heparin and rivaroxaban are used to treat patients who have a history of venous thromboembolism or are at high risk of developing this such as with atrial fibrillation. Rivaroxaban is an alternative to coumarin (warfarin) that is taken as a daily tablet. Where patients are undergoing major surgery, it is usual to request they stop this medication for 48–72 hours to allow reversal of its anticoagulation effects. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is used as an antiplatelet agent in patients with ischemic heart or peripheral vascular disease. It is also used in the setting of hypothenar hammer syndrome alongside nifedipine, a calcium channel antagonist, which has a powerful vasodilatory effect on the peripheral vasculature. Nifedipine is also used in Raynaud’s disease for the same physiologic effects.

References:
  • 1. Olin JW. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease). N Engl J Med 2000;343(12):864–869
Question 17 of 17 DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS OF VASCULAR ANOMALIES
A 10-year-old child is brought to clinic by their parents with a lymphatic malformation to the left upper limb. Which one of the following would be in keeping with this diagnosis on clinical examination?
A
A 15 cm × 20 cm fixed color, deep purple patch of skin to the distal forearm
B
A soft, fluctuant 15 cm × 5 cm swelling to the mid forearm that remains the same irrespective of arm position
C
A 5-cm blue colored swelling to the dorsal hand which reduces in volume with elevation
D
A 2-cm warm swelling to the distal forearm and wrist with a palpable bruit
E
A 3-cm soft, pale pink swelling to the mid forearm that is nontender with some skin excess
✓ Correct Answer: B. A soft, fluctuant 15 cm × 5 cm swelling to the mid forearm that remains the same irrespective of arm position
Clinical Explanation

position. Vascular anomalies are classified as either tumors or malformations. Hemangiomas are tumours, while other benign vascular anomalies are malformations. Malformations are congenital and comprise of abnormal vessels, be it arteries, veins, capillaries, lymphatics, or a combination of these. They are therefore most commonly described as capillary, venous, lymphatic, arteriovenous, or mixed. They can also be classified according to flow rate: low flow, high flow, or mixed flow. These features can often be identified from the history and examination alone and determine aspects of their management. Most vascular malformations can be diagnosed on clinical examination alone because of their specific characteristics; however, imaging may assist in the diagnosis and can also useful in determining extent and flow rate. Lymphatic malformations vary according to whether they are microcystic or macrocystic in nature and according to their location. They may have a soft, fluctuant consistency with minimal change on gravity, or they may be characterized by cutaneous vesicles which may contain clear fluid, or be discolored brown by bleeding. Their color can also vary according to their tissue depth and whether there is any vascular (usually venous) component. Venous malformations tend to have a blue or purple appearance according to depth, location, and size, and usually deflate with elevation of the limb or expand with dependent positioning or exercise. There may be associated firm lumps palpated due to phleboliths. Capillary malformations are not usually affected by gravity or exertion and tend to have a characteristic port- wine stain red/purple appearance. They may be smooth in the early years, or become textured (cobblestoned) in later life. Arteriovenous malformations generally feel warm and have a palpable pulsatility, thrill, or bruit. The last description above represents a hemangioma. These tend to have a characteristic bright red or “strawberry” appearance at presentation, as they represent an abnormal collection of blood vessels. By the age of 10 years, these have generally involuted spontaneously and if this is incomplete, then the color therefore changes to a paler white/pink. This involution can leave a small excess of skin and fat and this may require surgical correction.1–4

References:
  • 1. Greene AK, Perlyn CA, Alomari AI. Management of lymphatic malformations. Clin Plast Surg 2011;38(1):75–82
  • 2. Mulliken JB. Diagnosis and natural history of hemangiomas. In: Mulliken JB, Burrows PE, Fishman SJ, eds. Mulliken and
  • Young’s Vascular Anomalies: Hemangiomas and Malformations. Oxford University Press; 2013
  • 3. Maguiness SM, Liang MG. Management of capillary malformations. Clin Plast Surg 2011;38(1):65–73
  • 4. Greene AK, Alomari AI. Management of venous malformations. Clin Plast Surg 2011;38(1):83–93
  • PART VII
  • Aesthetic Surgery

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